Post 003



At a wedding in Cana (John 2:1-11), Jesus performed the first
miracle--the changing of water to wine. On that occasion, Jesus called His
mother "Woman". John 2:3-4 of the Holy Bible, Revised Standard Version,

When the wine failed, the mother of Jesus said to him, "They have no
wine." And Jesus said to her, "O woman, what have you to do with me? My
hour has not yet come."

By Jesus calling His mother 'Woman', His detractors, His critics used
this as a ridicule, an offensive remark, a smear, a slur, an insult, a
malicious gossip against Jesus. Why do you think Jesus called His mother as
such? And why did He say that His hour has not yet come?

The Holy Spirit who I have been fortunate to communicate with explained
why. He said that Jesus called His mother 'Woman', although she is His
mother, because she is also the creation of Jesus. It is in this event that
the separation or distinction of God and of man was demonstrated or shown.
Because Jesus is God Himself.

And why did Jesus say "My hour has not yet come."? Because, according
to the Holy Spirit, that was really not yet His time to show who He was.
However, because of His great consideration for His mother, He did not want
to disappoint her with her request. Jesus considered the sufferings of Mary
from the time that He was born up to the time of rearing Him when He was
growing up. This is the reason why the first miracle happened.
It was in this wedding in Cana at Galilee that Jesus performed the first
miracle. There He demonstrated His power and revealed His glory, and His
disciples believed that He really was the Messiah.

Is this explanation of the Holy Spirit logical enough? Your comments
are welcome.



Another instance when Jesus called His mother "Woman" is in John 19:26 of The Holy Bible, Revised Standard Version, to wit: "When Jesus saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing near, He said to His mother, 'Woman, behold, your son!' " In the Good News Bible, the word "Woman" is omitted. Why?
Again, this just illustrates the separation between God and man. Jesus, as God, called upon His mother as "Woman" to behold her son.


Gerry wrote an eloquent reply concurring to my post.  You may read his reply in by searching for “Jesus called His mother”.  Paula commented to the post of Gerry on April 30, 2000.  The following is my reply to Paula’s post:
I am not insinuating that Jesus as being insulting when He did such.
However, there are non-Christians who are spreading this gossip against
Jesus using this instance. I heard it personally that is why I said, that
is black propaganda. People have to understand better what that really
means. And what I shared here is what I heard and learned from the Holy
Spirit. It was a listener by the name of Marcial Aguila who asked this in
one of the sessions with the Holy Spirit in 1974. I just heard this from a
tape I copied from him. I first heard the Holy Spirit in 1983.

So we have two instances wherein Jesus called His mother "Woman". I
hope people will now understand its true meaning and be able to enlighten
those people who spread malicious gossips against Jesus using these

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